One of the articles I read on the assault said they were absolutely laying charges against the husband for everything, but that they needed to investigate further with regards to the man who physically attacked the woman. If they can demonstrate that he knew it was non-consensual or that he made no effort to verify that the woman was consenting, they’ve got him dead to rights. If the husband contacted the man posing as his wife, on the other hand, they may only be able to conclusively demonstrate something like negligence due to failure to verify consent via a less falsifiable medium.

I can’t imagine how the victim must feel. First she’s the victim of a stranger-rape in her own home, then it’s discovered that the man she’s been with for over a decade, with whom she shared a home, with whom she has two children, orchestrated the attack. Horror doesn’t even begin to cover it.

Clearly, you seem to think that the answer is “yes,” or at least “maybe.” Which means you can get off my blog.

Assuming that the husband told the man that he is trying to act out a rape fantasy for his wife, who shares the fantasy.

The one of judgment over the possibility of woman having such a fantasy is narrow thinking.

For the me the only question is whether a reasonable person would believe that the wife had such a fantasy, without first discussing the fantasy with the wife.